P-adics and Linear Recurrences

(Jit here).

Today I want to explain how to prove Skolem-Mahler-Lech using the p-adic numbers, and explain some sort of generalization in the area of algebraic/arithmetic dynamics, known as the Dynamical Mordell-Lang conjecture, which is still an open problem.

Let's first start off with Skolem-Mahler-Lech. The theorem says the following: start with a sequence (an)(a_n) that satisfies some sort of linear recurrence

an=c1an1++ckanka_n = c_1 a_{n-1} + \cdots + c_k a_{n-k}

where cic_i are possibly complex numbers. We are then interested in what the set {nan=0}\{n \mid a_n = 0 \} looks like. Skolem-Mahler-Lech says that in fact, this set is a finite union of arithmetic progressions (here the arithmetic progressions can be of difference 0, i.e. just a single term A.P.). 

Why arithmetic progressions? One obvious way that we can have infinitely many zeroes without being the zero sequence is that our linear recurrence is secretly two linear recurrences glued together. For example, consider the sequence an=an2+an4a_n = a_{n-2} + a_{n-4}. Then essentially the even terms a2na_{2n} and the odd terms a2n1a_{2n-1} do not interact with each other and so this is secretly two different linear recurrences combined into one. We can just set one of them to be the zero sequence and another to be the Fibonacci and obtain an arithmetic progression worth of zeroes.

So the theorem is sort of saying if you had an "irreducible" linear recurrence (whatever that means), if it is zero infinitely many times then it is actually just the zero sequence. Let's plug in the formula for a linear recurrence: we know that there are constants r1,,rkr_1,\ldots,r_k along with polynomials P1(x),,Pk(x)P_1(x),\ldots, P_k(x) such that

an=P1(n)r1n++Pk(n)rkna_n = P_1(n) r_1^n + \cdots + P_k(n)r_k^n

for all nkn \geq k. Now this naturally defines for us a function by replacing nn with zz, giving us

f(z)=P1(z)r1z++Pk(z)rkz.f(z) = P_1(z)r_1^z + \cdots + P_k(z)r_k^z.

If f(z)f(z) was just a polynomial, we know that having infinitely many zeroes would imply only it is actually the zero function. Clearly f(z)f(z) is not a polynomial, but at least it is a power series 

f(z)=b0+b1z++bnzn+f(z) = b_0 + b_1 z + \cdots + b_n z^n + \cdots

giving by the Taylor series of 

ez=1+z+z22!+.e^z = 1 + z + \frac{z^2}{2!} + \cdots.

Now, it is a theorem that if a convergent power series g(z)g(z) has a sequence of zeroes {xi}\{x_i\} that converge to some limit point xx, then actually g(z)g(z) must be the zero power series. This is not hard to prove, we expand g(z)g(z) as a power series with xx as a center, and say we obtain 

g(z+δ)=b0+b1δ+.g(z+ \delta) = b_0 + b_1 \delta + \cdots .

If b0b_0 was non-zero, if δ|\delta| was small enough, it would be impossible for the remaining terms biδib_i \delta^i to be larger than b0b_0 (this is where we require that the power series is convergent!) and so it would be non-zero for δ\delta small enough and so there is no zero near zz. Similarly if b0b_0 was zero but b1b_1 wasn't, then b1δb_1 \delta would dominate the other terms and so again, there cannot be a zero near zz. The same argument applies in general.

We would like to apply this theorem, but we run into a problem - there is no sequence for which our natural numbers is converging to. In fact, they are "escaping" into \infty, which is possible to be made precise but I won't bother. As a counterexample to this approach, we can consider the function ez1e^z - 1. This is clearly a non-zero function, but it has infinitely many zeroes given by z=2kπiz = 2 k \pi i for natural numbers kk. These zeroes escape to \infty and so there is no contradiction to our theorem above. 


Is there a way to remedy this? It turns out they key idea is that the natural numbers are actually a bounded set, but only if one considers the pp-adic topology instead of the usual distance metric. Then since they form a bounded set, any subsequence necessarily has a convergent subsequence, and applying the pp-adic analogue of our theorem of power series having a convergent sequence of zeroes, we are done. 

Let's try to define this pp-adic topology. Fix a prime number pp. The main idea is that we are going to define a metric on the natural numbers such that the prime number pp is going to be small, and all other numbers uninvolved with pp will be sort of constant size. For example since pp is small, it is necessary that 2p2p is small (it is like a constant multiplied by a small number). Also, p2p^2 is going to be even smaller than pp and p3p^3 even smaller. In particular, pnp^n converges to 00 as nn goes to infinity. 

To make this precise, we formally define a distance p| \cdot |_p by saying

ap=1pvp(a)|a|_p = \frac{1}{p^{v_p(a)}}

where vp(a)v_p(a) is the exponent of pp dividing aa. This defines a distance metric between natural numbers and we can then form what is known as the "completion" to get the pp-adic integers Zp\mathbb{Z}_p. The completion is the process of getting the reals R\mathbb{R} from the rationals Q\mathbb{Q} and in some sense we are filling in all the holes. As a rough idea of how this goes, given any sequence that looks like it should converge, we should add in an extra point so that it converges. For example, the sequence 1,1+p,1+p+p2,1, 1+p, 1+p+p^2,\ldots should converge, and so there should exist a number xx representing 1+p+p2+1+p+p^2+ \cdots. In fact, this number turns out to just be 1p1\frac{1}{p-1} since 

(p1)(1+p+p2+)=1.(p-1)(1 + p + p^2 + \cdots ) = 1.

In particular, every pp-adic integer can be described as an infinite pp-adic expansion 

x=a0+a1p++anpn+x = a_0 + a_1p + \cdots + a_n p^n + \cdots

with ai{0,1,,p1}a_i \in \{0,1,\ldots,p-1\} and every such infinite pp-adic expansion gives us a number. Another example is that 7\sqrt{7} is actually in Z3\mathbb{Z}_3. Let's think about how to construct it. If 

7=a0+a1p++anpn+,\sqrt{7} = a_0 + a_1p + \cdots + a_np^n + \cdots,

then we must have that 

a027(modp),(a0+a1p)27(modp)2,a_0^2 \equiv 7 \pmod p, (a_0 + a_1 p )^2 \equiv 7 \pmod p^2, \ldots

Can this be achieved for p=3p = 3? Turns out we can find such aia_i's by Hensel's lemma. We have to solve x27(mod3)x^2 \equiv 7 \pmod 3, which is possible for example by taking x=1x = 1. Now to lift it to a solution to mod p2p^2 and p3p^3 and so on, Hensel's lemma states that we need the derivative of x27x^2 - 7 to not be a multiple of 33 when x=1x = 1, and this is simply just 2x=22x = 2. So we can apply Hensel's lemma which allows us to find ana_n such that

(a0+a1p++anpn)27(modpn+1)(a_0 + a_1 p + \cdots + a_n p^n)^2 \equiv 7 \pmod {p^{n+1}}

for all nn, giving us an expansion of 7\sqrt{7}

Now let's assume for simplicity that the coefficients of the polynomials Pi(n)P_i(n) and exponentials rir_i's are all algebraic numbers. Just like the example of 7Z3\sqrt{7} \in \mathbb{Z}_3 it is always possible to choose a prime pp such that any finite set of algebraic numbers you have lie in Zp\mathbb{Z}_p. This is just an application of Hensel's lemma and choosing a prime pp such that the minimal polynomials of these algebraic numbers all have a zero (possible by Chebatorev's density theorem). In particular,  we can choose pp such all these coefficients of Pi(n)P_i(n) and exponentials lie in Zp\mathbb{Z}_p. Then 

f(z)=P1(z)r1z++Pn(z)rnzf(z) = P_1(z)r_1^z + \cdots + P_n(z)r_n^z

sort of makes sense as a pp-adic power series, once we can define what aza^z should be for a pp-adic number aa. It turns out the pp-adic exponential only makes sense once aa is close to 11, i.e. say if a1p<1p|a-1|_p < \frac{1}{p}. Once we have this, we can define

an=((a1)+1)n= k=0n(nk)(a1)k.a^n = ((a-1) + 1)^n =  \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} (a-1)^k.

We can then replace nn with kk by defining the binomial coefficient

(zk)=z(z1)(zk+1)k!\binom{z}{k} = \frac{z(z-1) \cdots (z-k+1)}{k!}

and define the pp-adic exponential aza^z as 

az=k=0(zk)(a1)k.a^z = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \binom{z}{k} (a-1)^k.

Since a1|a-1| is small, the function aza^z will then converge for any pp-adic integer zz. Finally we are done - we first split up f(z)f(z) into the functions

f(1+(p1)z),f(2+(p1)z),,f((p1)z),f(1 + (p-1)z), f(2+ (p-1)z), \ldots, f( (p-1)z),

which replaces our exponents rizr_i^z with rii (rip1)zr_i^i  (r_i^{p-1})^z. In particular, by Fermat's little theorem we know that rip11p<1p|r_i^{p-1} - 1|_p < \frac{1}{p}. We are then in position to expand this as a convergent power series in zz for z1|z| \leq 1. Finally, the natural numbers are bounded and so we can choose a convergent subsequence for any infinite sequence of natural numbers (just imagine picking a subsequence with all the same residue mod pp, then further choosing the same mod p2p^2 and so on). We can then apply the analogue of the power series theorem that says that if a convergent pp-adic power series has a sequence of zeroes that converge to some point, then it must be the zero power series, finishing the proof of Skolem-Maher-Lech.


We now mention the more general Dynamical Mordell-Lang conjecture, or at least a special case of it. Start with the nn-space Cn\mathbb{C}^n and consider a subvariety VV, i.e. the set cut out by a finite set of polynomial equations 

P1(x1,,xn)=P2(x1,,xn)==Pm(x1,,xn)=0.P_1(x_1,\ldots,x_n) = P_2(x_1,\ldots,x_n) = \cdots = P_m(x_1,\ldots,x_n) = 0.

We start off with an map f:CnCnf: \mathbb{C}^n \to \mathbb{C}^n written as

(x1,,xn)(Q1(x1,,xn),,Qn(x1,,xn))(x_1,\ldots,x_n) \mapsto (Q_1(x_1,\ldots,x_n), \ldots, Q_n(x_1,\ldots,x_n))

where again QiQ_i are polynomials. Given a point xCnx \in \mathbb{C}^n, we are interested in the set

{nfn(x)V}\{n \mid f^n(x) \in V\}

and the Dynamical Mordell-Lang conjecture states that this should again be a finite union of arithmetic progressions. It takes some work to see it, but taking V={xn=0}V = \{x_n = 0\} and using ff as a linear transformation produces Skolem-Mahler-Lech as a special case. Thus we can imagine that this is some sort of highly non-linear version of Skloem-Mahler-Lech. This is still a problem that is wide open, and the most significant progress so far is the case of n=2n = 2 which is solved by Junyi Xie in a 100 page paper. A brief sketch of the idea is that in the 22-dimensional case,  we can actually tells a strong property about curves VV for which 

{nfn(x)V}\{n \mid f^n(x) \in V \}

is an infinite set. These curves have infinitely many SS-integral points and so by Siegel's theorem, they should have genus zero (topologically have no holes) and have at most 22 points at infinity (this is a harder concept to describe, but you can imagine if we wanted to compactify it in the sense that the Riemann sphere is the compactification of C\mathbb{C}, then we can only add at most two points). Then what is important is that f(V),f2(V),...f(V), f^2(V),... the iterates of VV also satisfy the same property. Then by analyzing the dynamics at infinity, it is possible to show that this cannot be the case unless VV is a preperiodic curve. For higher dimensions, already the first step doesn't work as we do not know for which surfaces can we have infinitely many integer points or even a Zariski-dense set of integer points (this is the Lang-Vojta conjecture).

Also another interesting thing to note is that we only proved Skolem-Mahler-Lech for algebraic coefficients cic_i, and not complex coefficients. To do it in general for complex coefficients, the idea is that being zero is an "algebraic" condition. In particular, if say these complex coefficients contained transcendental elements, say π\pi, then after splitting them up according to a transcendence basis, the coefficients involving each element of this basis must evaluate to zero. In particular, the transcendental basis behaves like a variable xx and we can the basis to algebraic numbers which reduces us to the algebraic case.

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